Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
12.06.2025 06:24
You'll usually find your answer there.
There's no rule.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
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Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
What was your first trans experience like?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Hillary thinks we must censor or "we lose total control". Why does she demand total control?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.